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Exam Code: 50-710
Exam Name: Novell (Novell Certified Linux Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which command can you use to create a Reiser file system on the sda6 partition? (Choose 2.)
A. mkreiserfs /dev/sda6
B. fdisk.reiserfs /dev/sda6
C. makE. reiserfs /dev/sda6
D. fdisk -t reiserfs /dev/sda6
E. mkfs -t reiserfs /dev/sda6
Answer: AE

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NO.2 As system administrator root, you use the lpoptions command to change printer options, such as the
page sizE. To which file are these options saved?
A. ~/.bashrc
B. ~/.lpoptions
C. /etc/cups/lpoptions
D. /etc/sysconfig/cups
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which user authentication methods can be used with SLES 10? (Choose 4.)
A. NIS
B. WEP
C. SSH
D. PAM
E. LDAP
F. Handshake
G. Windows Domain
H. Local (/etc/passwd)
Answer: AEGH

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NO.4 Which are journaling file systems? (Choose 3.)
A. XFS
B. ext2
C. ext3
D. VFAT
E. minix
F. VFAT32
G. ReiserFS
Answer: ACG

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NO.5 Which command can you use to check an ext2/ext3 file system for a correct superblock, faulty data
blocks, or faulty allocation of data blocks?
A. df
B. du
C. fdisk
D. e2fsck
E. reiserfsck
Answer: D

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NO.6 How large is an inode?
A. 256 bits
B. 64 Kbytes
C. 128 bytes
D. 1 Mbyte
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement about the /sbin/ldconfig command is correct?
A. The ldconfig command is used to link directories.
B. The ldconfig command is used to configure an LDAP connection.
C. The ldconfig command is used to update the software library cachE.
D. The ldconfig command is used to show dynamic libraries needed by a program.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statements about partitions are correct? (Choose 3.)
A. Extended partitions can be subdivided into logical partitions.
B. A primary partition consists of a continuous range of cylinders.
C. Logical partitions do not require entries in the main partition tablE.
D. If you use only primary partitions, you are limited to eight partitions per disk.
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10 can only be installed on a primary partition.
F. To install more than one operating system on a partition, the partition has to include the entire cylinder
rangE.
Answer: ABC

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NO.9 Waht is the correct syntax for mounting the second partition of the first SCSI hard disk?
A. mount /mnt /dev/hda2
B. mount /dev/hda2 /mnt
C. mount /dev/sdb1 /mnt
D. mount /mnt /dev/sdb1
E. mount /dev/sda2 /mnt
F. mount /mnt /dev/sda2
Answer: E

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NO.10 You want to view the last 20 lines of the /var/log/messages file and any new lines that are subsequently
added by syslog to this filE. Which command would you use?
A. tail -20f /var/log/messages
B. end -20f /var/log/messages
C. less -20f /var/log/messages
D. follow -20 /var/log/messages
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which command can be used to view the inode assigned to a filename?
A. ls -i
B. fsck -h -i
C. inode --list
D. cat /proc/inodes
Answer: A

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NO.12 You would like to run command1 and then command2, whether or not command1 completed
successfully. Which command accomplishes this task?
A. command1 | command2
B. command1 ; command2
C. command1 > command2
D. command1 & command2
Answer: B

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NO.13 Why are the noauto and users options used with /etc/fstab?
A. A normal user is not allowed to access this partition.
B. They allow any user to mount and unmount a partition.
C. They specify the partitions that are bootable by a user.
D. They specify the partitions that are not bootable by a user.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which is the main configuration file for logrotate?
A. /etc/logrotate
B. /etc/logr.conf
C. /etc/cron/logrotate
D. /etc/logrotatE. conf
Answer: D

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NO.15 In which file is the host name of a Linux computer configured? (Hint: You do not need to include the
entire patH. )
Answer:______
Answer:

NO.16 What is the correct order of steps to change the partition table using fdisk?
A. You can't use fdisk to change a partition tablE.
B. Start fdisk > Change the partition table > Write the partition table to hard disk > Exit fdisk > Reboot.
C. Start fdisk > Change the partition table > Write the partition table to hard disk > Exit fdisk > Load the
partition table from the boot prompt.
D. Start fdisk > Change the partition table > Write the partition table to floppy disk or USB stick > Exit
fdisk > Boot from floppy disk or USB stick.
Answer: B

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NO.17 What information do you need to set up an LDAP client? (Choose 4.)
A. LDAP version
B. LDAP base DN
C. Kind of encryption
D. Synchronization frequency
E. Address of the LDAP server
F. File name of the LDAP database
Answer: ABCE

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NO.18 Which statements about the LVM components are correct? (Choose 2.)
A. A volume group is part of a logical volumE.
B. Logical volumes are grouped in a master group.
C. A volume group always consists of one physical volumE.
D. A physical volume can be a partition or an entire hard disk.
E. A volume group can be reduced in size by removing physical volumes.
F. The operating system accesses the volume groups like conventional physical partitions.
Answer: DE

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NO.19 Which command is used to enter or change the quota for user tux?
A. quotacheck
B. repquota tux
C. edquota -u tux
D. edquota -g tux
E. /sbin/quotaon tux
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the minimum number of partitions required by a SLES 10 system?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 50-886
Exam Name: Novell (Cni-foundations of novell Networking:netware 6.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 196 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button to begin. Given the explicit right assignments shown, what rights does
CGrayson have to the MHoffmann user object?
A.Supervisor
B.Browse
C.Browse, Create
D.Browse, Create, Delete
E.Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, Inheritable
F.Supervisor, Browse, Create, Delete, Rename
G.Supervisor, Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, Inheritable
H.CGrayson has no rights to the MHoffmann user object.
Correct:B

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NO.2 During the installation of NetWare 6.5, the server files are installed on the __________ volume.
Answer:
A.SYS
Correct:A

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NO.3 Your company's business procedures require the use of triplicate forms. To accommodate this,
you have secured an older dot-matrix printer to deploy in your network. It doesn't have a network
interface. It will be connected directly to one of your server's LPT ports using an IEEE 1284
parallel cable. You use Novell Distributed Print Services (NDPS) to provide print services to your
users. This printer doesn't have an embedded printer agent. Can you use it with NDPS?
A.Yes, all prerequisite requirements have been met.
B.No, the NDPS manager doesn't support older dot-matrix printers.
C.No, the NDPS broker is incompatible with the IEEE 1284 standard.
D.No, NDPS doesn't support printers that don't have an embedded printer agent.
E.No, a printer agent can't be created for printers that connect to the server with a parallel cable.
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which utility can be used to create NSS volumes in NetWare 6.5? (Choose 2.)
A.NSSMU
B.iMonitor
C.NWCONFIG
D.ConsoleOne
E.NDS Manager
F.NetWare Administrator
Correct:A D

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NO.5 Which web-based services does Virtual Office provide? (Choose 3.)
A.Chat
B.Calendar
C.Bookmarks
D.Spreadsheet
E.Word processor
F.Project management charts
Correct:A B C

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NO.6 Which utilities can you use to manage directory and file attributes on a NetWare 6.5 server?
(Choose 2.)
A.ICE
B.FLAG
C.iManager
D.iMonitor
E.NDS Manager
F.Remote Manager
Correct:B F

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NO.7 Your company specializes in the production of digital video products. Your company has been
recently awarded a very large contract that has a very short deadline. Your NetWare 6.5 server
currently uses a single 80 GB IDE hard disk drive. The new contract will require considerably
more hard disk storage. You've purchased and installed a 400 GB RAID5 disk array designed
specifically for non-linear video editing. The array came with a diskette containing NetWare
drivers. Which file on your server should you edit to load these drivers?
A.RAID.NCF
B.SERVER.EXE
C.CONFIG.SYS
D.STARTUP.NCF
E.STARTUP.CFG
F.STORAGE.NCF
G.AUTOEXEC.BAT
H.RAID5 array drivers can only be loaded manually from the server console.
Correct:D

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NO.8 You've been asked by management to implement Novell's iFolder product throughout the
company. You've installed a new NetWare 6.5 server, named DA28, in the tree to provide iFolder
services. The IP address of DA28 is 192.168.1.28. During the server install, you selected the
iFolder patterned deployment. You now need to configure iFolder on the server. What URL can
you use to access the iFolder Management Console?
A.http://192.168.1.28/vo/Admin
B.http://192.168.1.28:8008/Admin
C.http://192.168.1.28/iFolderAdmin
D.http://192.168.1.28/iFolder/Admin
E.http://192.168.1.28:443/iFolder/Admin
F.http://192.168.1.28/iFolderServer/Admin
G.http://192.168.1.28:631/iFolderServer/Admin
H.http://192.168.1.28/nps/iManager/iFolderAdmin
Correct:F

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NO.9 Click the Point and Click button to begin. A user in your company has moved from the London
office to the Sydney office. You need to move her user object in the eDirectory tree to the
appropriate container. Click the iManager option you would use to do this.
Correct:

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NO.10 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the option in iManager you would use to see
every object that the Admin.SLC.DA user object is an explicit trustee of.
Correct:

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button to begin. What element of this file system design violates Novell's
recommendations?
A.The MAIL directory should reside on a volume other than SYS.
B.The QUEUES directory should be placed on a volume other than DATA.
C.The USERS directory and subsequent subdirectories should not reside on SYS.
D.The SYS, DATA, and RESOURCES volume objects should not be placed in the same container.
E.The REPORTS, PROJECTS, QUEUES, APPS, and CORPAPPS directories shouldn't be split between
DATA and RESOURCES.
Correct:C

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NO.12 Which tasks can be performed with ConsoleOne? (Choose 2.)
A.Manage licensing.
B.Assign rights to objects.
C.Browse very large trees.
D.Configure NDPS Brokers.
E.Change the server's IP address.
Correct:B C

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NO.13 You've just finished configuring an iPrint system on your NetWare 6.5 server. The server's DNS
name is iprint.widget.com. The Manager object is named IPP-Printer in the SLC.WIDGET container.
The Broker object is named IPP-Broker and is also in SLC.WIDGET. You've used the Maptool.htm
file to configure a map named slcoffice.htm for location-based printing. What URL should you
enter in your browser's Address field to test the iPrint map?
A.http://iprint.widget.com/slcoffice.htm
B.http://iprint.widget.com/Ipp/slcoffice.htm
C.http://iprint.widget.com/Ippdocs/Maptool.htm
D.http://iprint.widget.com/iPrint/slcoffice.htm
E.http://iprint.widget.com/Ippdocs/slcoffice.htm
F.http://iprint.widget.com/Ipp/slcoffice.htm -b=IPP-Broker.SLC.WIDGET
G.http://iprint.widget.com/Ippdocs/slcoffice.htm -m=IPP-Printer.SLC.WIDGET
Correct:E

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NO.14 Which products does Virtual Office provide web-based access to? (Choose 3.)
A.eGuide
B.iFolder
C.NetStorage
D.WAN Manager
E.Remote Manager
F.Web Search Server
Correct:A B C

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NO.15 You're implementing a NetWare 6.5 network for a small business client: Jessica's Bakery. There
is only one server in the network. You've named the server BAKERY1 and installed it into an
eDirectory tree named JESSICASBAKERY-TREE. You've used a random password generator to
create a password for the tree's Admin user. To ease administration, you've located the server
next to the Point of Sale system in the customer area of the bakery. You deployed Universal
Password on the server. All workstations have Novell Client 4.9 installed on them. You created a
NFAP share on the server for the SHARED and the FINANCE directories on the server's DATA
volume. Does this configuration meet Novell's security recommendations?
A.Yes, all Novell security guidelines have been met.
B.No, the server should be placed in a locked closet or room.
C.No, you shouldn't use Universal Password with Novell Client version 4.9.
D.No, you shouldn't use the business name in the server or eDirectory tree names.
E.No, you shouldn't create NFAP shares for directories containing financial information.
F.No, you shouldn't use a random password generator for the Admin password. It's easy to hack.
Correct:B

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NO.16 Which of the following are system files used by DR-DOS? (Choose 3.)
A.NTLDR
B.IO.SYS
C.MSDOS.SYS
D.IBMBIO.COM
E.IBMDOS.COM
F.COMMAND.COM
G.NTDETECT.COM
H.PAGEFILE.SYS
Correct:D E F

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NO.17 Which file system attribute indicates that the file has been modified at some point since the last
backup operation?
A.A
B.H
C.P
D.Ci
E.Dc
F.Di
G.Dm
H.Ds
I.Ic
J.Ro
K.Sh
Correct:A

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NO.18 You're designing the eDirectory tree for your company. Your company is composed of four
distinct subsidiary organizations. You decide to create four Organization objects at the root of
your tree to represent each. Each subsidiary has its own Vice President who is in charge of the
organization. You decide to create a user object for each Vice President in their respective
Organization object. Will this design work?
A.Yes, all eDirectory rules have been observed.
B.No, user objects can't reside in an Organization object.
C.No, Organization objects can only reside within Country objects.
D.No, there can only be one Organization object within a given tree.
E.No, Organization objects should not be used to represent subsidiaries. Organizational Unit objects
should be used instead.
Correct:A

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NO.19 The __________ feature of NSS allows the sum of the sizes of each volume in a partition to
exceed the size of the partition itself. Answer:
A.OVERBOOKING
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which describes the role of the Novell Distributed Print Services (NDPS) printer agent?
A.It downloads the correct print driver to the workstation.
B.It responds to queries from clients about the status of a print job.
C.It provides a platform for printer objects that reside on the server.
D.It allows NDPS clients to sent print jobs to printers that are not NDPS-aware.
E.It redirects print jobs to directory on the server while waiting for the printer to become available.
F.It takes application-specific data from the application creating the print job and reformats it to work with
the printer it is being sent to.
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 50-V37-ENVCSE01
Exam Name: Novell (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.2 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.3 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.4 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.5 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.7 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.8 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.9 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.10 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.11 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.12 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.13 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.14 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.15 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.16 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.17 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.18 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.19 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.20 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 920-183
Exam Name: Nortel (Callpilot RIS.5.0 System Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 CallPilot administrators can provide centralized control of desktop options. Which two are configurable
services for Desktop and Web Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. fax printing
B. desktop playback
C. address book location
D. creation of a revert directory number
Answer: BC

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NO.2 You are installing the Messaging Waiting Indication (MWI) icon for Desktop Messaging and My
CallPilot users. Which statement about the MWI icon feature is true?
A. You can install the MWI software by using only the desktop client installer.
B. You can install the MWI software by using only the standalone desktop player.
C. You can install the MWI software by using the desktop client installer or the standalone desktop player.
D. You cannot download the MWI software from My CallPilot. You must download from Desktop
Messaging.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are implementing the Outlook Single Inbox feature at your company. The IT team asks you how
this feature affects the Exchange Server. Which information will you share to answer their question?
A. The original CallPilot message and all copies are transferred to the Exchange Server.
B. Synchronization between the Exchange Server and the CallPilot Server occurs even when CallPilot is
not running.
C. Copies of users' CallPilot messages are saved to the Exchange Server. The original messages reside
on the CallPilot server.
D. Desktop Messaging synchronization does not require that Microsoft Outlook be actively running on the
user's computer.
Answer: C

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NO.4 CallPilot Desktop Messaging clients at a company are unable to send messages from the desktop
interface. Which messaging protocol must be configured to enable this capability?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer wants to implement a User Privacy Option for all My CallPilot users. How can the
administrator let the users self-administer the privacy option?
A. In the Mailbox settings of Security Administration, deselect Name Dialing and Name Addressing.
B. In the Name Dialing settings of the Messaging Management page, deselect Name Dialing and Name
Addressing.
C. In the Privacy and Blocking settings of the User Creation Template, deselect Name Dialable by
External Callers.
D. In the Desktop and Web Messaging Configuration settings of the Mailbox Class Details page, select
Allow User to Hide Entry in Address Book.
Answer: D

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NO.6 After a user attempts to launch an Email-By-Phone session by pressing 8-9, the system responds by
stating that the message list is empty and returns the user to CallPilot messages. What is a possible
cause for this scenario?
A. The message list on the email server is empty.
B. The user has an incorrect user ID or password.
C. The Email-By-Phone feature is not enabled for this user.
D. The email address is entered incorrectly in the mailbox properties.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The performance and capabilities for Remote Notification are important for both the system
administrator and the user. Which two statements about configuring Remote Notification are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The schedule is defined in the mailbox class.
B. It can be set up with telephone keypad commands.
C. It can be configured for up to three target Directory Numbers (DNs).
D. It allows only a specific number of retries before notification is turned off.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 After installing CallPilot Desktop Messaging, an end user needs to retrieve the messages from the
CallPilot mailbox. Which protocol enables desktop messaging clients to retrieve messages from the
CallPilot server?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 920-807
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Unified Communications Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 In some cases IP gateways are required in a pure IP PBX environment. Where in the network
would the IP gateway be placed, if one were required?
A.between the IP PBX and the carrier
B.between the IP call server and its associated gateways
C.between the IP PBX and any firewalls
D.an IP gateway is not required in a pure IP PBX solution
Correct:A

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NO.2 When paired with a Communication Server 1000 PBX, the Microsoft Office Communicator client
uses a feature called twinning or dual-forking. What is twinning?
A.a type of conference call
B.two telephones sharing a single extension number
C.telephone set cloning
D.two users sharing an extension number
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which critical business application and/or process coupled with unified communication
enablement can provide executive management with real-time financial information/data to make
financially driven business decisions in real-time?
A.customer service (CS)
B.enterprise resource planning (ERP)
C.customer relationship management (CRM)
D.sales force automation (SFA)
Correct:B

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NO.4 In an Office Communications Server (OCS) 2007 Enterprise Edition environment, which solution
increases the availability of OCS 2007 services?
A.deployment of a mediation server
B.deployment of an archiving server
C.deployment of edge servers
D.deployment of a load balancing technology with the OCS 2007
Correct:D

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NO.5 Assuming the customer and all of the project team members are located in the same city, which
unified communications enablement application can have the greatest impact on increasing the
gross profit margin for a fixed-fee professional services project with multiple project team
members?
A.Real-time collaboration can provide faster group decision making, streamline project tasks and
deliverables that are shared, and allow the project to be
B.
C.Audio and video conferencing can reduce the travel and expense overhead for fixed-fee professional
services projects when team members must meet for
D.
E.Presence and availability can help increase productivity by identifying which project team members are
reachable to answer immediate questions.
F.IM Chat can provide real-time answers to immediate project questions to enhance productivity for the
project team.
Correct:A

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NO.6 Which unified communications application, when implemented, can successfully solve the time
value of money business challenge for bank and financial institutions attempting to provide
customers with faster loan approvals?
A.self-service websites enabled with IM chat
B.real-time unified messaging with key loan personnel
C.reservation-less audio conferencing
D.real-time collaboration with key loan personnel
Correct:D

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NO.7 A company has an existing traditional TDM PBX and wishes to implement a unified
communications project. At the present time it is more feasible to add a second VoIP-enabled PBX
into the existing configuration to complete the project rather than replace the existing system. To
make this system work as designed, the company must purchase and configure which other piece
of hardware for this solution?
A.Router
B.IP gateway
C.New telephone sets
D.This solution is not possible
Correct:B

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NO.8 Given that several VoIP protocols have been used for communications between end-point
devices, which protocol is versatile enough to act as the signaling protocol for mobile, fixed, and
software-based end-point devices?
A.MGCP
B.SIP
C.H.323
D.SGCP
Correct:B

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NO.9 A company that is implementing unified communications (UC) has a mobile workforce that
utilizes mobile end point devices such as PDA devices. Which security methodwill be needed to
secure UC dialogue between the PDA devices?
A.Authentication
B.Encryption
C.One time passwords
D.RFID tagging and tracking
Correct:B

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NO.10 Installation of Office Communications Server (OCS) 2007 requires the extension of the active
directory domain services schema so that creation and configuration of objects in the Active
Directory can take place. Which two active directory objects are necessary for OCS 2007 to
operate? (Choose two.)
A.home telephone number
B.session initiation protocol (SIP) URI
C.telephone extension number
D.fully qualified domain name
Correct:B C

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Exam Code: 922-072
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls 4.0 BCM 450 Rls. 1.0 Config)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which statement about the BCM450 capacity expansion card (CEC) is true?
A.A BCM450 with a CEC can support a maximum of 300 trunks.
B.You can remove the CEC if the customer capacity needs drop.
C.A BCM450 with a CEC can support a maximum of 130 stations.
D.The CEC is a standard card that comes installed with every BCM450.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the function of the BCM450 chassis interface board (CIB)?
A.The CIB connects the base function tray to the chassis wiring.
B.The CIB increases IP trunk capacity.
C.The CIB connects the media services card to the media bay modules.
D.The CIB in the BCM450 can be used in a BCM400 main unit.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of IP trunks you can have on a BCM450 with a capacity expansion card?
A.48
B.80
C.130
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Media Bay Module (MBM) can be combined with the G4x16 on the same DS30 bus on a
BCM200/400 system?
A.DTM
B.GATM4
C.GASM8
D.BRI S/T
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer with a BCM400 has a requirement of one T1, six PSTN analog lines and 12 digital
telephones.
What are the minimum Media Bay Module (MBM) requirements?
A.one DTM and one G8X16B.one BRIM and one GASM8
C.one GATM8 and one G4X16
D.one GATM4 and one DSM16+
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 920-260
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Secure Router Rls.10.1 Configuration and Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which factor affects the number of QoS classes you can create?
A.router licensing level
B.bandwidth on each T1
C.number of WAN bundles
D.total bandwidth available
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which command delivered from SR/configure/interface/bundle wan/qos/class eng3> will remove VLAN
100 from a traffic class?
A.del_vlan 100
B.no vlan_id 100
C.rem_vlan_id 100
D.delete_vlan_id 100
Answer:D

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NO.3 The Nortel Secure Router 4134 supports performance monitoring and measurement. The feature,
known as SLA, provides performance measurements that include packet loss and round-trip delay. A
maximum number of active measurements can be associated with a single destination. What is the
maximum number of SLA active measurement(s) per destination?
A.1
B.5
C.8
D.16
E.unlimited
Answer:B

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NO.4 On a Nortel Secure Router 4134, the QoS operations can be performed on chassis and module
components. The QoS processing functions performed by the Module QoS are listed. Which two
functions are performed in association with the Module QoS egress packet processing? (Choose two.)
A.Class of Service marking
B.traffic shaping
C.flow classification
D.traffic policing
E.scheduling
Answer:B E

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NO.5 Which two different rates of traffic can the Nortel Secure Router QoS classes provide? (Choose two.)
A.Burst Rate
B.Control Rate
C.Balloon Rate
D.Committed Rate
Answer:A D

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Exam Code: 922-103
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 and IP Networking Design)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 33 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer is expanding their operations to a second location.
They need to deploy a solution with support for 70 IP telephone usersthat can provide local survivability in
the event of a network failure.
In addition, they require support for 20 digital telephones.
Which two solutions should the customer consider? (Choose two.)
A. Media Gateway 10OOB
B. Survivable Media Gateway 1000E
C. Survivable Remote Gateway 1.5
D. Survivable Remote Gateway 503.0
Answer A B

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NO.2 A customer is opening two new branch offices and wants to use theirexisting Communication Server
(CS) 1000E RIs. 6.0 system. The mainsystem uses 22,150 IP telephones.
What is the maximum number of supported IP telephones that can beinstalled in the new branch offices
using Media Gateway 1000B thatwill remain survivable in the event of an IP connectivity loss tothe main
CS1000E or other Alternate Call Servers?
A 350
B 400
C 500
D 850
Answer A

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NO.3 A customer has IP Trunks configured between multiple sites. Astation user from one site attempts to
call a different site, butall trunks are busy What provisioning can be used to transparentlyprocess this
call?
A. The call will automatically process via PSTN with no additionalprovisioning.
B. The call will automatically process via the TIE lines with noadditional provisioning
C. Provisioning of the SIP Redirect Server will allow Fallback toPSTN.
D. Provisioning of the MCDN Alternate Routing feature will allowFallback to PSTN.
Answer D

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NO.4 Unified Communications Management (UCM) consists of three levels:
Network Level, System Level, and Element Base Level
At which level(s) can patching be controlled?
A. System Level only
B. Network Level only
C. Both System Level and Element Base Level
D. Both Network Level and Element Base Level
Answer D

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NO.5 Which statement most accurately describes the function of theTerminal Proxy Server (TPS) in a
Communication Server (CS) 1000E RIs.
6.0 system deployment for a typical single system network design?
A. The TPS provides web services access to the Call Server.
B. The TPS provides the function of virtual trunk allocation withouta physical presence in the hardware.
C. The TPS provides signaling between an IP telephone and the CallServer.
D. The TPS provides a direct media path between users in the CallServer domain and users In the SIP
domain
Answer C

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Exam Code: NS0-101
Exam Name: Network Appliance (NetApp Accredited Sales Professional Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What can a customer use to quickly manage the full recovery process following a database corruption?
A.RAID-DP
B.SnapMirror
C.SnapManager
D.SnapRestore
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which benefit does NetApp FlexClone provide in a technical design environment?
A.an accelerated time to market
B.a reduced backup window
C.faster application throughput
D.increased data security
Answer: A

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NO.3 A NetApp solution can be simultaneously used to store primary data, disk-to-disk backups, and act as a
WORM device. (True or False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 The NetApp corporate pitch states that the number one measurement of the company's success is
______.
A.maintaining growth
B.customer success
C.our share price
D.customer loyalty
Answer: B

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NO.5 The NetApp strategy for addressing today's Data Management Challenges is based on a portfolio of
products.
These five strategies are: Store, _____, Retain, Protect, and Succeed.
A.Simplify
B.Manage
C.Grow
D.Expand
Answer: B

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NO.6 NetApp corporate pitch states that NetApp brings which benefit to the complex world of enterprise data
management?
A.eliminates risk in an enterprise environment
B.has lowest cost per TB
C.provides unmatched simplicity
D.completely removes complexity
Answer: C

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NO.7 From the corporate pitch, what does NetApp bring to the complex world of enterprise data
management?
A.unmatched scalability
B.unmatched services
C.unmatched simplicity
D.unified architecture
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three are available NetApp Partner programs? (Choose three.)
A.lead generation
B.opportunity registration
C.PartnerGear
D.product test and development
Answer: ABC

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NO.9 Which two customer requirements does the NetApp SnapLock solution meet? (Choose two.)
A.data permanence and retention regulations
B.data encryption regulations
C.secure partitioning of network and storage resources
D.rapid access to protected information
Answer: AD

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NO.10 NetApp is in the Leadership quadrant of the Gartner Magic Quadrant for Mid-Range Enterprise Disk
Arrays rating of storage vendors.
This is their highest rating and pertains to _____.
A.strategic business partnerships
B.financial stability
C.completeness of vision and ability to execute
D.world-class service and support
Answer: C

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