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Exam Code: 6201-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center on Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A customer just upgraded their CMS to releaseR16 from release Rt4. Theswitch is releaseCM4 and is
not going to be upgraded to CM 6untilnextweek
When the switch is upgraded,what needs to happen before the link will come up using theCM6 protocol?
A. Only the reporting adjunct in the switch needs to be changed to R16 CMS.
B. Only the switch release in the CMS needs to be changed to CM6.
C. Both the reporting adjunctthe switch and the switch release in the CMS need to be updated
D. It is not necessary fareither the reporting adjunct orthe switch release to change.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click theexhibit button
A Miami basedmedical center is defining evacuation procedures for severe weather conditions The center
has decided to plan for two types evacuations, major and minor During a minor evacuation; the center
willstaff only a few medical answer line agents to answer critical callsmajor evacuation the answer line will
not be staffed instead of reaching alive agent, callers willreceive a pre-recordedinformation
Inthe example vector segment, what is represented by the Ein steps 2 and 3?
A. E is a standard vector code for evacuation
B. E has been administered as a Feature Access Code
C. Ehas a vector variable that is changed when an evacuation is required
D. E is assigned to a VDN that routes calls to an evacuation vector
Answer: D

Avaya   6201-1   6201-1

NO.3 A customer has purchased 5200 agent licenses and each agent has been assigned at least 3 skills.
Which two values would be a valid Data Storage Allocation entry for "Maximumagents lagged in"?
(Choose two)
A. 10400
B. 15600
C. 100000
D. 500000
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Toactivate, which three options require an Avaya authorization password? (Choose three)
A. simultaneous CMS Supervisor logins
B. the number of agents thatthe CMS can report on
C. the number of users that can be administered in the CMS
D. the number of ACDs thatthe CMS system can monitor
E. features assigned to each user
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 A technician integratesthecustomer snetwork and links the CM reference between CM and CMS is
greater than 24 hours.
Whatcan be done to fix the problem?
A. Shutdown the CMS to the ak prompt level and adjust the BIOS time.
B. Run the script /cms/install/autotime to synchronize the Communication Manager's time to the CMS
C. In. CMS, login as root and use the /cms/datesync command to sync the CMS and CM time.
D. FromSolarislogin as root and use the date command
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two CommunicationManagerfeatures does the VALcircuit pack support? (Choose two.)
A. Music-an-hold
B. Voice over IP
C. Integrated Announcements
D. Local Announcements
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 The Quick Credit call center opened at 8 a.m. on the Friday, the day after a holiday By8:30, the
customer service line had received 6 customercomplaints all1 stemming from calls to the center the day
before. Callers complained thatthey received the all agents are busy
recording but regardlesshow long
they waited, were never answered.
What caused callers to be queued even though the Quick Credit call center was closed onthe holiday?
A. The Communication Manager was down.
B. An agentforgotto log out.
C. The holiday recording was not functioning properly.
D. The holiday was not administered in the holiday tablet
Answer: B

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NO.8 When connecting the service PC to S8800, the cable connects the System Management Ethernet
connector port.
Which port is used when hooking the monitor to the CMS T5220?
A. SER MGT Port
B. NET MGT Port
C. NET 1Port
D. XVR-300XB port
Answer: A

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NO.9 In an active non-Expert agent selection (AES) environment, what is each hunt group known as?
A. Agent
B. Split
C. Skill
D. Vector
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer needs helpwith maintaining service leveltargets.
Which Advocate feature will make automated adjustments to overload settings?`
A. Dynamic Threshold Adjustment
B. Service Objective
C. Dynamic Percent Allocation
D. Vector Queuing Priorities
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 6102-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A Split Multi Link Trunking (SMIT) for switch clustering is being configured.
Which statement is a configuration requirement for the SMIT?
A. The CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the tote IST.
C. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via the DMLT
connection to add
resilient paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
D. Alternate the primary path of the SMLT connection Lo load balance the switch core.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used by the IP Multicast router, to
learn about the
existence of host group members on their directly attached subnets.
Which statement about IGMP is true?
A. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for IP hosts broadcasting IGMP
queries and
reporting their host group memberships.
B. The IP Multicast routers get this information by broadcasting IGMP queries and listening
for IP hosts
reporting their host group memberships.
C. The IP Multicast routers get this information by recognizing the modified MAC address of a
Multicast
packet and adding that MAC address to the Multicast tree.
D. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for Multicast Servers broadcasting
IGMP
queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command can be used to determine the management IPv6 address on the
Virtual Services
Platform (VSP) O000?
A. Show interfaces mgmtEthernet 1/1
B. Show ip interface vrf mgmtRouter
C. Show ipv6 interface vrf mgmtRouter
D. Show ipv6 address interface
Answer: D

Avaya   6102-1   6102-1

NO.4 Which types of packets will port mirroring not capture.?
A. Packets that are dropped on the ingress MAC
B. Packets that are destined for the standby CP
C. Packets that are properly forwarded through the VSP
D. Packets that have a destination address of 255.255.255.255
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the following ACL applied to an interface:
filter acl ace 1 5 name "xxxx" filter acl ace action 1 5 deny
filter acl ace ip 1 5 ip-protocol-type eq tcp
filter acl ace protocol 1 5 dst-port eq 23
filter acl ace 1 5 enable
What is the result of this filter?
A. permit telnet traffic
B. deny ftp traffic
C. permit only tcp traffic
D. deny telnet traffic
E. deny only tcp traffic
Answer: D

Avaya   6102-1   6102-1

NO.6 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to
ensure that all of
the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF
redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in
the existing
Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the
VSP 9000.
Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP
address.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Avaya recommends that the Switch Fabric (SF) modules be installed in both Slot SF1
and Slot SF4.
What is the reason behind this recommendation?
A. It provides optimal load balancing between the SF modules.
B. It provides redundancy tor the bandwidth management.
C. It takes full advantage of the orthogonal midplane architecture.
D. It provides redundancy in case of a power supply failure.
E. It provides lossless SF failover.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two management ports are available on the CP module? (Choose two.)
A. Serial interface
B. USB (host) interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. Modem interface
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 6104
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

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NO.8 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

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NO.9 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.10 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 3202
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Conferencing (R7.x) Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® conferencing 7.
Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?
A. Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B. Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C. Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D. Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license
file.
Answer: B

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6. The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system has 10 components.
Which two components are parts of the Web Server Group? (Choose two.)
A. Web Collaboration Management Server (WCMS)
B. Avaya Media Server (AMS)
C. Document Conversion Server (DCS)
D. Application Server (AS)
Answer: A,B

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7. During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer
receive?
A. The staging username
B. The deployment type or staging file to be used
C. The operations file be used
D. The operations file or deployment name to be used
Answer: B

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8. The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator
code,
and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could
not be launched from the Collaboration Agent.
What is causing this problem?
A. During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B. The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C. The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D. The Document Conversation Server was not configured.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage
bandwidth
on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?
A. SIP Link Monitoring
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D. SIP Domain
Answer: A

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NO.3 On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the
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A. Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under “Conference of Service”.
B. Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu “Media Server Resource” under the
Feature Server Elements.
C. Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure “Media Server Resource” under System
Management Tab.
D. Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?
A. Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B. Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C. Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D. Critical, Major, Minor, Warning
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server
Cluster?
A. They must share the system default setting.
B. They must share common power supply.
C. They must share the same physical location.
D. They must share the same server name.
Answer: A

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NO.1 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.5 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E

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NO.6 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running
on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to
add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports
Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager,
which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.8 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop
Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.11 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.12 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, B, C, E

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NO.15 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D

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Exam Code: QAWI201
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0 (QAWI201))
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have created a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID) within InfoView
that has a single table block on a single report page. Where will a new object be displayed when you
add it to the query?
A. In a block
B. In a new report
C. In Query Panel
D. In Report Manager
E. In a new report page
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A. Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B. In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C. Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
D. Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two settings can you configure for the Sample option in the Properties tab of the Web
Intelligence Query panel? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable the "Fixed" option.
B. You can set the "Max retrieval time".
C. You can set the "Max rows retrieved".
D. You can specify a "Sample Result" set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Where are formulas stored when created in Web Intelligence?
A. In the universe
B. On the report page
C. In the Central Management Server (CMS) database
D. In the metadata of the Cube
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which three rules apply when you manually synchronize queries? (Choose three.)
A. Dimension value formats must be the same.
B. Dimensions with different names can be merged.
C. Dimensions with different data types can be merged.
D. Dimensions from multiple data sources can be merged.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 How many blocks can you create in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. Unlimited
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web
Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID)?
A. Advanced
B. Query
C. Active X
D. Interactive
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which two methods can you use to apply report filters to a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence
XI 3.0 document (WID)? (Choose two.)
A. Block
B. Global
C. Custom
D. Dynamic
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 An application may deem a certificate invalid if (Choose three)
A. the certificate has expired
B. the certificate ¯ s i ssue r i s no t tr us t ed
C. a certificate attribute name has been misspelled
D. the certificate is missing a required extension
E. the application ¯ s ad m i n i s tr a t o r has b l ocked t he pub li c key
F. the organization attribute in the certificate ¯ s DN i s no t kno w n t o t he app li ca ti o ¡ ¯s a d m inis t rato
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 During installation of the RSA Certificate Manager and the RSA Registration Managter, it is possible to
change the default port configurations
A. True
B. False
Answer : A

NO.3 When retrieving your certificate, you must ensure that
A. you use the same browser as when enrolled
B. the browser can support certificate description retrieval
C. the Administrator has configured you to perform IPSec transactions
D. you have a valid user account in the same domain as RSA Certificate Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 If an organization is about to begin deployment of an RSA Certificate manager PKI, what should the
organization do? (Choose two)
A. Smart card enable users browsers
B. Install a fiber Ethernet backbone to handle Web traffic
C. Locate a secure physical location for their RSA Certificate Manager hardware
D. Make sure all e-mail addresses are less than 25 characters for S/MIME
E. Secure the Operating System (OS) based on the OS vendor ¯ s r eco mm enda ti ons
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Where can the operation logs used for troubleshooting be found for RSA Certificate Manager and RSA
Registration Manager?
A. /<installed_directory>/logs
B. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/logs
C. /<installed_directory>/LogServer/operations/logs
D. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/operations/logs
Answer: B

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NO.6 What does the X.509 standard apply to.?
A. contents of a digital certificate
B. strength of S/MIME encryption
C. protocol for connecting through a VPN
D. methods for secure public/private key storage
Answer: A

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NO.7 RSA Certificate Manager supports enrollment using which protocols? (Choose three)
A. CMP
B. SCEP
C. OCSP
D. DHCP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 When a CA has been revoked, the browser will always show that certificates issued by that CA are
invalid
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the standard format for transporting certificates and private keys, as used with export and
import functions?
A. PKCS #7
B. MS CAPI
C. PKCS #11
D. PKCS #12
Answer: D

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NO.10 Manually generated CRLs can be configured to include the next update in relative or absolute time
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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